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Would the maximum possible magnetisation of a paramagnetic sample be of the same order of magnitude as the magnetisation of a ferromagnet?

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Yes, a paramagnetic sample with saturated magnetisation will have the same order of magnetisation as the magnetisation of a ferromagnetic substance. However, the saturated magnetisation will require magnetising field too high to achive. Further, there may be a minor difference in the strengths of the atomic dipoles of paramagnetic and ferromagnetic materials.

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